GMDC MOCK 2 34 ALL THE BEST THANK YOU Quiz 1 / 40 During a sharp curettage of an incomplete abortion, the uterine was perforated. What is the first step of management? If there is no hemorrhage in the first 24 hours after operation, the patient can be discharged Curettage should be continued by a specialist only Administration of antibiotic Curettage should be completed and patient should remain under observation Laparotomy 2 / 40 Which of the following drugs IS NOT used to inhibit premature labour? Nifedipine. Phenobarbital. Magnesium sulfate. Indomethacin. Ritodrine 3 / 40 The most likely finding in the initial stages of septic shock is Tachypnoea Abnormally low blood pressure Absent femoral pulses Delayed capillary refill Hyperpnoea 4 / 40 In Preeclampsia all are correct EXCEPT: Development of epigastric pain is a serious sign. Is more common with women with a first degree relative who has preeclampsia. It is a significant cause of maternal mortality. The condition is more common in women who smoke cigarettes. Regular full blood count are helpful in monitoring the progress of the condition. 5 / 40 Low birth weight is defined as Below the 10th percentile for gestational age None of the above Below -2 z-score for gestational age Below the average weight for the age and parity of the mother Below 2500g 6 / 40 A child born in Ghana in 2016 will routinely receive the following vaccinations except Rotavirus Pneumococcus Meningococcus Mumps Rubella 7 / 40 A 2-year-old presents with a three day history of refusal to bear weight on the left leg. The temperature on admission is 39°C. Initial blood work shows Haemoglobin 9.6g/dl, WBC 15 x 109/l, platelets 470 x 109/L and ESR 60mm/hr. The most likely diagnosis is Multiple myeloma Septic arthritis of the left hip joint None of the above Fracture of the left femur Tuberculosis of the bone 8 / 40 Which is true about placental abruption? The chance of repeated abruption is twice There is no means to predict abruption Abruption occurs after placental delivery The chance of repeated abruption is not different Fetal assessment techniques can predict abruption with good precision 9 / 40 A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly heavy menstrual periods during the past 2 years. Menses occur at regular intervals and last 8 days with heavy flow during the first 3 days. She takes no medications. She is sexually active with one partner and uses a diaphragm consistently. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 14- week gestation. Examination of an endometrial biopsy specimen obtained 5 days before her last menstrual period shows secretory endometrium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Pregnancy Endometritis Leiomyomata uteri Endometrial polyps Anovulatory bleeding 10 / 40 ECG changes associated with hypokalemia include Appearance of a U wave Shortened PR interval Right axis deviation Upright T wave ST segment elevation 11 / 40 In the fetal circulation, the INCORRECT statement is: The ductus venous connects the umbilical vein with inferior vena cava. The blood is shifted from the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale. The inferior vena cava contains both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. There are two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery. Prostaglandins maintain patency of ductus arteriosus. 12 / 40 A child with severe haemophilia A would have an abnormal Platelet count Prothrombin time None of the above All of the above Blood film morphology 13 / 40 What is not a reason of oligohydramnios in a woman at gestational age of 35W2D with IUGR in pregnancy? Reduced fetal urine Reduced fetal renal blood perfusion Severe preeclampsia may be a cause Increased swallowing of the fetus due to asphyxia Reduced placental perfusion 14 / 40 The following are characteristics of simple febrile seizures Initially focal with secondary generalization Rate of epilepsy is higher than in the general population Occur only once or twice in a twenty-four-hour period Commonly caused by cerebral malaria Last for thirty minutes or less 15 / 40 A 20-year-old primigravida, 32 weeks gestation, presents with profuse vaginal bleeding with pain and tenderness per abdomen. The most probable diagnosis: Abruptio placenta. Placenta praevia. Uterine rupture. Vaginitis. Marginal sinus bleed. 16 / 40 What is wrong about vaginal hematoma after delivery? Vulvar hematoma can occur after improper episiotomy repair Mattress suturing the bed of hematoma Pressure dressing should be applied on the hematoma bed for 12-24 hours An incision on the site if pain is severe and hematoma enlarges Observation if hematoma is small 17 / 40 Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus? Histoplasmosis Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia Diphtheria Lassa fever Amyloidosis 18 / 40 The following are features of prematurity in a neonate except No creases on sole Thick ear cartilage Empty scrotum Abundant lanugo Flat areola 19 / 40 A 19 year old woman is hospitalized for abdominal pain. Serum progesterone is 15ng/mL. Which is a true statement about her illness? Ectopic pregnancy is ruled out Ectopic pregnancy risk is about 90% Ectopic pregnancy and intrauterine pregnancy cannot be ruled out Ectopic pregnancy and intrauterine pregnancy are ruled out Ectopic can be ruled out by careful physical examination 20 / 40 This is false about diabetic ketoacidosis blood ph is less than 7.3 deep sighing respiration is present blood glucose is usually greater than 11.0 mmol/l ketonemia and ketonuria are characteristic serum bicarbonate level is more than 18mEq/l 21 / 40 A 33-year-old nulligravid woman with primary infertility comes for a follow-up examination. She has been unable to conceive for 5 years; analysis of her husband's semen showed normal sperm counts. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. She is asymptomatic except for severe dysmenorrhea. An endometrial biopsy specimen 5 days before menses shows secretory endometrium. Hysterosalpingography 6 months ago showed normal findings. Pelvic examination shows a normal vagina and cervix. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus and no palpable adnexal masses. Rectal examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Male factor Endometriosis Tubal obstruction Intrauterine synechiae Anovulation 22 / 40 What is the diagnosis and treatment of a non-tender mass near the urethral opening in a 4 year old girl? Muluscum - analgesics and steroids Prolapse of the urethra - topical estrogen Skene gland abscess - antibiotic and evacuation Condylomata acuminate - TCA acid Bartholin's gland abscess - gland excision 23 / 40 Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not generally used for long term tocolysis because they: Are ineffective May cause premature closure of fetal ductus arteriosus. Produce marked hypertension. Are too expensive. Are associated with lactic acidosis. 24 / 40 What is your management of a 32 years old woman G1P0, GA of 6 weeks with an empty gestational sac, no heart beat and empty uterus on Ultrasound? Methotrexate and leukovorin Hysteroscopy Laparotomy and salpingectomy and follow up Evacuation of the uterus by a specialist Methotrexate and folic acid and iron supplement 25 / 40 A 30year old woman G3P2, gestational age of 35 weeks and BP of 190/110 is in seizure. What is the best way to control her seizure? Phenobarbital Labetalol IV Diazepam MgSO4 Phenytoin 26 / 40 The risk of acute bilirubin encephalopathy in a newborn is increased with the use of Gentamycin Phenobarbitone Ampicillin Ceftriaxone Phenytoin 27 / 40 Contraindication to medical therapy (Methotrexate) in tubal pregnancy is No fetal heart motion on ultrasound. Desire for future fertility. Size of the ectopic gestational sac is 3cm for less. History of active hepatic and renal disease. Absence of active bleeding. 28 / 40 A low weight for height in a three-year-old child indicates Marasmus Stunting Underweight Wasting Kwashiorkor 29 / 40 A 34-year-old G4P4 woman is immediately postpartum from delivery of a 4.0kg baby girl at 39 weeks' gestation. Time elapsed from the onset of labor to delivery of the placenta was 6 hours. Delivery was complicated by a second-degree perineal tear. Postpartum vital signs are within normal limits when the patient begins to hemorrhage vaginally. Estimated blood loss is 300 mL so far. Bimanual examination reveals a soft, enlarged, "boggy" uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment? Speculum examination Hysterectomy Oxytocin infusion Bimanual uterine massage Ergot 30 / 40 In determining the Apgar score of a newborn, the following would be assessed except Oxygen saturation Muscle tone Response to stimulation Skin colour Respiratory effort 31 / 40 In the diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome, the following tests would be useful except Urinalysis Doppler ultrasound of the lower limbs Serum complement levels Fasting lipid profile Liver function tests 32 / 40 Haemorrhagic cystitis is a recognized complication of VIncristine Adriamycin Methotrexate Cisplatin Cyclophosphamide 33 / 40 A pregnant woman G2P1, GA of 39 weeks has the chief complaint of vaginal spotting. There is no sign of abruption or previa by ultrasound. What is the best management? Tranexamic acid to control bleeding Blood transfusion is a must Termination of pregnancy Discharge home Observation 34 / 40 A 9-month-old girl may Have temper tantrums Build a tower of four or more blocks Know the names of items in a picture book Stand on tiptoe Be afraid of strangers 35 / 40 An innocent murmur is likely to be Diastolic Associated with a thrill Non-radiating Persistent into early adulthood Loudest at the left sternal border 36 / 40 Which is not among pathophysiological changes of preeclampsia? Increased resistance to angiotensin DIC Increased thromboxane A2 Reduction in prostacyclin Platelet dysfunction 37 / 40 Acetaminophen-induced toxicity most commonly affects the Lungs Liver Bone marrow Kidneys Heart 38 / 40 Which of the following would be most appropriate in the immediate management of a 10-month-old infant with diarrhea and severe dehydration Immediate intraosseous access for rehydration Oral rehydration solution if the child can drink Intravenous Dextrose saline Stat dose of broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics Intravenous Ringer's lactate 39 / 40 Clinical features of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukaemia include Bone pain Dental anarchy Chloromas Proptosis Gum hyperplasia 40 / 40 The following diseases are associated with the Epstein Barr virus except Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease Wilm's tumour Hodgkin's lymphoma Burkitt's lymhpoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Your score is The average score is 63% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0%